UPSC CSE 1979

A solar eclipse occurs when (c) the Moon comes between the Sun and Earth. During a solar eclipse, the Moon casts a shadow on Earth, blocking the sunlight partially or completely.
Explanation:


Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Earth comes between sun and moon: This would be a lunar eclipse, where the Earth’s shadow falls on the Moon.
(b) Moon is at right angle to the earth: The orientation of the Moon relative to the Earth is not the defining factor for a solar eclipse. It’s the relative positions of the Moon, Earth, and Sun.
(d) Sun comes between moon and earth: This is physically impossible, as the Moon is much smaller than the Sun and cannot come between it and Earth.

When a man circles round the earth in a satellite, (b) his mass remains constant but weight becomes zero.
Explanation:
Mass: Mass is the amount of matter in an object, and it’s a fundamental property that doesn’t change with location. So, regardless of where the man is in space, his mass will stay the same.
Weight: Weight is the force exerted on an object due to gravity. In space, the man is essentially falling towards the Earth but his forward speed keeps him in orbit. This means the gravitational force acting on him is negligible, resulting in zero weight. Therefore, while the mass remains constant, the weight becomes zero.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) His mass becomes zero but weight remains constant: Mass is a fundamental property and cannot become zero. It’s the amount of matter in an object, and is independent of its location or weight.
(c) Both mass and weight remain constant: Weight is the force due to gravity, and in space, the man experiences negligible gravity. This means his weight becomes zero, while his mass remains constant.
(d) Both mass and weight remain zero: Mass is a fundamental property and cannot be zero. It’s the amount of matter in an object, and is independent of its location or weight. While weight becomes zero due to the lack of significant gravity in space, mass remains constant.

The weight of an object at the poles is greater than at the equator as (d) Gravitational pull is more at the poles.
Explanation: The Earth is not a perfect sphere; it’s slightly flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator. Because of this shape, the distance from the center of the Earth to the surface is shorter at the poles than at the equator. Since gravity is inversely proportional to the distance from the center of the Earth, the gravitational pull is stronger at the poles where the distance is shorter.


Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Of the shape of the earth: While the shape of the Earth is the key reason for the difference in gravity, option D more directly states the reason, which is the resulting difference in gravitational pull.
(b) The attraction of the moon is maximum at the earth’s surface: The moon’s gravitational influence is primarily responsible for tides, not the difference in weight between the poles and equator.
(c) The attraction of the sun is maximum at the earth’s surface: The sun’s gravitational influence is much weaker than the Earth’s and is relatively constant across the planet.

(b) Copper was the first metal to be used by humans
Explanation: Copper was the first metal used by humans, dating back to over 10,000 years ago. A copper pendant found in Iraq has been dated to 8700 BC. Copper’s malleability and ability to be melted and cast made it useful for early tools, weapons, and decorative items.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Iron:Iron was used later in human history, specifically during the Iron Age. It requires high-temperature smelting, which was a more advanced process compared to copper’s native availability.
(c) Aluminum:Aluminum is a relatively recent discovery and extraction process. It’s not considered one of the first metals used by humans.
(d) Gold:Gold, while known in ancient times, is a soft metal and was primarily used for decorative purposes rather than functional tools or weapons.

Gobar gas mainly contains (b) Methane.
Explanation: Gobar gas, also known as biogas, is produced by the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter, like animal waste. Methane is the primary component, with smaller amounts of carbon dioxide and other gases also present.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Carbon dioxide: While carbon dioxide is present in gobar gas, it’s not the main component.
(c) Ethylene: Ethylene is a hydrocarbon gas, but it’s not a major component of gobar gas.
(d) Carbon monoxide: Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas formed during incomplete combustion, not the primary component of gobar gas.

According to the given information, (b) Water constitutes the major part of the human body.
Explanation: Water is present in a significantly larger quantity compared to fats, plasma, or proteins within the body, making it the major component.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Fats: While fats are important for energy storage, their percentage in the body is much less than water.
(c) Plasma: Plasma is a component of blood, which itself is a smaller portion of the body compared to total water content.
(d) Proteins: Although proteins are essential for various bodily functions, their mass is significantly less than water.

Dialysis is primarily used for patients experiencing (a) Kidney trouble.
Explanation: Dialysis is a medical procedure that filters waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys are unable to perform this function adequately, a condition known as kidney failure or end-stage renal disease.


Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Liver trouble:While liver dialysis exists for liver failure, it is a distinct procedure and not what is typically referred to as “dialysis”.
(c) Lung trouble: Lung problems are addressed with various respiratory therapies and treatments, not dialysis.
(d) Bronchitis: Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, typically managed with medication and other treatments, not dialysis.

Pulse reading is done by doctors to find out the (b) Heart beat.
Explanation: Pulse rate is the number of heartbeats per minute. It indicates the heart’s rhythm and strength. Doctors use pulse readings to assess overall health, especially heart health. A healthy adult’s pulse rate typically ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute. Pulse can be felt in various parts of the body, like the wrist or neck.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Temperature: Temperature is measured using a thermometer to assess a person’s body heat.
(c) Blood pressure: Blood pressure is measured using a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope (or a digital monitor) to assess the force of blood against artery walls.
(d) Respiration rate: Respiration rate is measured by counting the number of breaths per minute.

The measles rash typically appears 3-5 days after the first symptoms of measles begin. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Four days.
Explanation:
Measles symptoms like fever, cough, runny nose, and red eyes develop first, followed by the characteristic rash. The rash usually starts on the face and then spreads downwards to the rest of the body. It is made up of small, flat red spots that may become slightly raised and can merge together.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) One day: The rash appears later than one day after the initial symptoms.
(c) Six days: The rash typically appears within 3-5 days, not 6 days.
(d) One week: The rash can last for several days, but it generally appears 3-5 days after the onset of symptoms and fades after a week.

Anti-sterile activity is because of (d) Vitamin E
Explanation: Vitamin E is known as the anti-sterility vitamin because it plays a vital role in reproduction and fertility. It’s also an antioxidant that helps protect cells from damage. Deficiency in Vitamin E can lead to reproductive issues, including sterility in some animals.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Vitamin A: While Vitamin A is important for various bodily functions, including vision and cell growth, it’s not primarily known for its role in anti-sterility activity.
(b) Vitamin B: The Vitamin B complex consists of several vitamins, each with its own specific functions. None of the B vitamins are primarily associated with anti-sterility.
(c) Vitamin C: Vitamin C is an antioxidant, but its primary role is in immune function and wound healing, not reproduction.

The water in an open pond remains cool even in hot summer because Of (a) continuous evaporation of water.
Explanation: When water evaporates, it absorbs heat energy from the surrounding water, which leads to a cooling effect, even in hot weather.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Water radiates heat more rapidly than the atmosphere: This is not true. Water actually radiates heat at a similar rate to the atmosphere, or even slightly less under certain conditions.
(c) Water absorbs heat less rapidly than the atmosphere: This is also incorrect. Water absorbs heat more readily than the air, but its high specific heat capacity allows it to store this absorbed heat without a significant temperature increase.
(d) Water absorbs heat more rapidly than the atmosphere: While water does absorb heat from the surrounding air, it absorbs it at a rate that is balanced by its ability to evaporate and absorb latent heat, resulting in a net cooling effect.

The first step you should take if you are traveling in a car during a thunderstorm is to (d) Lie flat in the car.
Explanation: During a thunderstorm, a car acts as a Faraday cage, protecting the occupants inside from lightning strikes. However, lying flat minimizes your exposure to potential hazards from windows or debris.
Why the other options are incorrect:
(a) Stop the car, get out of it and lie flat in the field: Getting out of the car during a thunderstorm exposes you to significant risk. Lightning can strike nearby objects, including trees, people, and open fields.
(b) Stand below a tree: Trees are often lightning strike targets due to their height and moisture content. Seeking shelter under a tree during a thunderstorm is extremely dangerous.
(c) Go to a nearby wood pole and stick to it: Like trees, wood poles are good conductors of electricity and attract lightning strikes. Touching a wood pole during a thunderstorm could be fatal.

The most common substance responsible for pollution, according to most environmental sources, is (b) Carbon dioxide.
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas emitted in large quantities due to human activities like burning fossil fuels, which significantly contributes to climate change.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Smoke: Smoke is a collection of particles and gases, but it’s not considered the most common pollutant globally; rather, it’s a form of particulate matter pollution which can include various substances like soot and dust.
(c) Sulphur dioxide: While sulphur dioxide is a significant pollutant contributing to acid rain, its emissions are generally less widespread than carbon dioxide.
(d) Carbon monoxide:Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas, but its primary source is vehicle emissions, making it a major air pollutant in urban areas, not necessarily the most prevalent globally.

If a large number of people are enclosed in a room, then (a) Oxygen decreases and carbon dioxide increases.
Explanation: When people breathe, they consume oxygen and release carbon dioxide. As more people are in a closed room, the amount of oxygen in the air decreases, and the amount of carbon dioxide increases due to their respiration.
Why the other options are incorrect:
(b) Oxygen increases and carbon dioxide decrease: This is the opposite of what happens. People use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide during respiration.
(c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide decrease: While oxygen does decrease, carbon dioxide increases due to respiration. It’s not possible for both to decrease simultaneously in this scenario.
(d) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide increase: Only carbon dioxide increases as people breathe. The oxygen level decreases because it is being consumed by the people in the room.

The correct answer is (d) Release of carbon dioxide.
Explanation: During the night, trees undergo respiration, which means they take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide. This increased concentration of carbon dioxide around a tree at night can be harmful to humans if they sleep underneath it.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Release of oxygen in lesser amount: During the day, trees release oxygen through photosynthesis. However, at night, they switch to respiration, releasing carbon dioxide instead.
(b) Release of oxygen in larger amount: This is the opposite of what happens at night. Trees actually release carbon dioxide, not oxygen, during the nighttime.
(c) Release of carbon monoxide: Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas produced by incomplete combustion. While some sources mention the potential for elevated carbon monoxide levels near certain trees due to factors like decomposition or decay, this is not the primary reason why sleeping under a tree at night is discouraged. The main concern is the release of carbon dioxide from tree respiration.

The correct answer is (c) Nitrates and ammonia.
Explaination: Plants primarily absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of nitrates and ammonium ions.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Nitrites only: While plants can absorb nitrites, they are not the primary form of nitrogen uptake. Nitrites are an intermediate product in the nitrogen cycle, converted to nitrates by bacteria before being absorbed by plants.
(b) Nitrates only: Although nitrates are a major form of nitrogen absorbed by plants, they also utilize ammonium ions.
(d) Urea: Urea is a nitrogen-containing compound that can be used by plants, but it’s not the primary form of nitrogen uptake. It’s typically broken down into ammonium and then nitrate before being absorbed.

Green plants in the sea are useful for fish respiration because (a) they give out oxygen.
Explanation: During photosynthesis, green plants take in carbon dioxide and water from sunlight and produce oxygen as a byproduct, which is then dissolved in the water, allowing fish to use it for respiration.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) They give out carbon dioxide: Green plants actually absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, not release it.
(c) The give out oxygen and carbon dioxide simultaneously: While plants do both photosynthesis (producing oxygen) and respiration (consuming oxygen), they don’t occur at the same time. Photosynthesis is dominant during the day, while respiration occurs at night.
(d) They take oxygen and give out carbon dioxide: This is the process of respiration in animals, not photosynthesis in plants.

The correct answer is (d) Matching of skin colour with surroundings.
Explanation:
Stripes on the back of animals are typically a form of camouflage, where the pattern blends in with their environment, making it difficult for predators to spot them or for prey to identify them.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Mating habit: While some animals use vibrant colors or patterns to attract mates, stripes are not generally associated directly with mating habits in terms of their function as a protective mechanism.
(b) Food habit: Stripes do not directly indicate an animal’s diet. Some animals with stripes might be predators or herbivores, but the stripes serve a camouflage purpose regardless of their food source.
(c) Cave dwelling: Cave dwelling animals often have adaptations to low light conditions, such as reduced eyesight or pale coloration. Stripes are not typically a feature of cave-dwelling animals as they are primarily used for blending in with open environments.

The balanced fertilizer for plants is (d) Compost.
Explanation: Compost is considered a balanced fertilizer because it contains a variety of nutrients needed by plants, including nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, in a more natural and balanced proportion compared to single-nutrient fertilizers like urea, ammonia sulfate, or nitrates.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Urea: Urea is primarily a nitrogen fertilizer, providing mainly nitrogen to plants.
(b) Ammonia sulfate: Like urea, ammonia sulfate is primarily a nitrogen fertilizer.
(c) Nitrates: Nitrates are also a source of nitrogen for plants, but they are considered a single-nutrient fertilizer.

The answer is (a) Typhoid.
Explanation: The “Triple Antigen” vaccine protects against three diseases: Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis (whooping cough). Typhoid is a separate bacterial infection that is not immunized by the “Triple Antigen” vaccine.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Whooping cough: The “Triple Antigen” vaccine specifically targets whooping cough (pertussis).
(c) Tetanus: Tetanus is another disease covered by the “Triple Antigen” vaccine.
(d) Diphtheria: Diphtheria is the third component of the “Triple Antigen” vaccine, providing immunity against this disease.

Milk fever in cows is caused by a deficiency in (b) calcium
Explanation: Milk fever, also known as hypocalcemia, is a metabolic disorder primarily affecting dairy cows around the time of calving. It occurs when the cow’s blood calcium levels drop too low, which is often due to the sudden increase in calcium demand for milk production immediately after giving birth. While other minerals are essential for cow health, calcium is the primary factor in milk fever.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Phosphates: While phosphates are important for bone health and other bodily functions, a deficiency in phosphate is not the primary cause of milk fever. Milk fever is specifically linked to a lack of calcium.
(c) Iron: Iron is crucial for red blood cell production and oxygen transport. While iron deficiency can cause anemia and other health problems in cows, it does not directly cause milk fever.
(d) Iodine: Iodine is vital for thyroid hormone production and overall metabolic function. Iodine deficiency can lead to goiter and reproductive problems, but it is not the cause of milk fever, which is a calcium-related condition.

The correct answer is (c) Three weeks.
Explanation: A chicken egg takes approximately 21 days to incubate and hatch, which is considered three weeks.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) One week: This is significantly less than the actual hatching time.
(b) Two weeks: While close, two weeks is not the full incubation period.
(d) Four weeks: This is considerably longer than the typical hatching time for a chicken egg.

The correct answer is (b) Eucalyptus.
Explanation: Eucalyptus is widely recognized as a fast-growing tree, known for its rapid growth rate and ability to reach considerable heights in a relatively short period.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Teak: While teak is a valuable hardwood, it is not considered a fast-growing tree.
(c) Banyan: Banyan trees are known for their large size and unique root system, but they are not typically classified as fast-growing.
(d) Coconut: Coconut trees grow at a moderate pace, but not as rapidly as eucalyptus.

A decrease in white blood cells results in a (a) decrease in antibodies.
Explanation: White blood cells, particularly lymphocytes (B cells and T cells), are crucial for the immune system’s ability to produce antibodies against invading pathogens. A reduction in white blood cell count means fewer lymphocytes are available to produce antibodies, leading to a diminished immune response.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Increase in Antigens: Antigens are substances that trigger an immune response by stimulating the production of antibodies. A decrease in white blood cells would not directly increase the number of antigens present in the body. Instead, it would impair the body’s ability to fight off existing antigens due to a lack of antibodies.
(c) Increase in Antibodies: As explained above, a decrease in white blood cells leads to a decrease in antibody production, not an increase.
(d) No change: A decrease in white blood cells has a significant impact on the immune system, making “”no change”” an inaccurate answer. The body’s ability to fight infections is compromised when white blood cell counts are low.

The answer is (a) Iron. In India, iron deficiency is the most common cause of anemia, a condition where the blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to the body’s tissues. While other deficiencies can contribute, iron deficiency is particularly prevalent.
Explanation:
Iron’s Role:Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. Without sufficient iron, the body can’t produce enough hemoglobin, leading to anemia.
Prevalence in India: Studies and reports indicate a high prevalence of iron deficiency anemia in India, especially among women and children.
Other Factors: While iron deficiency is the most common cause, deficiencies in other nutrients like vitamin B12, folate, and vitamin A can also contribute to anemia.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Iodine: Iodine deficiency primarily causes goiter and developmental issues, not anemia. It is essential for thyroid hormone production, but not directly for red blood cell formation.
(c) Calcium: Calcium deficiency can lead to bone problems and other health issues, but it does not cause anemia.
(d) Potassium: Potassium is important for various bodily functions, but its deficiency does not directly lead to anemia.

Reserpine, derived from the plant Serpentina, is used to (b) alleviate high blood pressure.
Explanation: High blood pressure is the correct answer: Reserpine is primarily known as an antihypertensive medication. Research has shown its effectiveness in lowering blood pressure.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Alleviate pains: While some plants from the Rauwolfia family have traditional uses for pain relief, reserpine itself is not specifically indicated for pain management.
(c) Alleviate low blood pressure: Reserpine’s action is to decrease blood pressure, so it would be counterproductive for someone with low blood pressure.
(d) Cure rickets: Rickets is a vitamin D deficiency disease that affects bone development. Reserpine has no known role in the treatment or prevention of rickets.

The most likely reason for the increase in Malaria cases in India is (a) The mosquitoes have become DDT resistant.
Explanation: DDT resistance: Over time, mosquitoes have developed resistance to DDT, a previously effective insecticide used to control malaria, making it less effective in preventing mosquito bites and transmission of the disease.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Of poverty in villages: While poverty can contribute to inadequate access to healthcare facilities and preventive measures like mosquito nets, the primary driver of malaria resurgence is mosquito resistance to DDT.
(c) Of poor sanitary conditions: Poor sanitation creates favorable breeding grounds for mosquitoes, but the development of DDT resistance in mosquitoes is the more significant factor.
(d) On account of increase in population it has become impossible to maintain cleanliness everywhere: Although increased population can exacerbate sanitation challenges, the main reason for the malaria resurgence is the emergence of DDT-resistant mosquito strains.

The correct answer is (c) In cloudy nights the radiation takes place very slowly.
Explanation: Dew forms when the ground cools down enough at night, causing moisture in the air to condense. However, on cloudy nights, clouds trap the Earth’s radiated heat, preventing the ground from cooling sufficiently to produce dew. This slow radiation process due to the presence of clouds is why less dew is formed on cloudy nights.


Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Clouds absorb the falling dew: While clouds can absorb moisture, they don’t actively absorb falling dew. Dew forms on the ground before it potentially reaches the clouds.
(b) Clouds scatter moisture: Clouds do scatter some moisture, but this scattering doesn’t prevent dew formation. It’s the absorption of Earth’s radiation by clouds that hinders dew formation.
(d) In cloudy nights the radiation takes place very quickly: This option is the opposite of the correct answer. On cloudy nights, radiation is significantly slowed down due to the clouds’ ability to trap heat.

Feeding of milk cattle with cotton seeds can (a) Increases fat content temporarily.
Explanation: Feeding cottonseed to dairy cows generally leads to an increase in the fat content of their milk. However, the exact change can vary depending on several factors like the amount of cottonseed fed, the individual cow’s physiology, and the composition of the rest of the diet. Some studies have also shown that while milk fat content increases with cottonseed supplementation, there might be a corresponding decrease in milk protein content.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Decreases fat content temporarily: Most research indicates that feeding cottonseed increases milk fat content, not decreases it. Some studies have shown short-term fluctuations, but the overall trend is towards increased fat.
(c) May decrease or increase fat content: While there might be some individual variations, the prevailing evidence points towards an increase in milk fat content with cottonseed supplementation. The “may” in this option doesn’t reflect the majority of findings.
(d) Causes no change in fat content: This is incorrect. Studies consistently demonstrate a positive correlation between cottonseed feeding and increased milk fat percentage.

The correct answer is (b) Virus. Mouth and foot disease in cattle, also known as foot-and-mouth disease, is caused by a virus.
Explanation: Foot-and-mouth disease is a highly contagious viral disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals, including cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats. The virus responsible for this disease is an Aphthovirus, belonging to the family Picornaviridae.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Bacteria: While some diseases in cattle are caused by bacteria, foot-and-mouth disease is not one of them. Foot-and-mouth disease is specifically caused by a virus.
(c) Fungi: Fungi can cause various diseases in animals, but foot-and-mouth disease is not one of them.
(d) Penicillium: Penicillium is a type of fungus and is not the causative agent of foot-and-mouth disease. Penicillium is known for producing antibiotics and is not associated with this particular disease.

A body partially floats in water when (c) The weight of the displaced water is equal to the weight of the body.
Explanation: According to Archimedes’ principle, when a body floats in a liquid, it displaces a volume of liquid with a weight equal to its own weight.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) The volume of the displaced liquid is equal to the volume of the body: This is only true if the body is fully submerged, not partially floating. When a body floats partially, only a portion of its volume is submerged, displacing a corresponding volume of liquid.
(b) The volume of the displaced liquid is greater than the volume of the body: If the displaced liquid volume were greater than the body’s volume, the body would sink, not float.
(d) The weight of the displaced water is greater than the weight of the body: This would also cause the body to sink, as the buoyant force exerted by the displaced water would be greater than the body’s weight.

The correct answer is (a) Boiling.
Explanation:
Permanent hardness: This is caused by the presence of dissolved calcium and magnesium salts like chlorides and sulfates, which are not removed by boiling. These salts are stable to heat.
Temporary hardness: This is caused by dissolved calcium and magnesium bicarbonates, which can be removed by boiling as they are converted into insoluble carbonates that precipitate out of the water.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Adding caustic soda: Caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) reacts with calcium and magnesium ions in hard water to form insoluble precipitates, thus removing permanent hardness.
(c) Distillation: Distillation removes all dissolved impurities, including those responsible for permanent hardness.
(d) Adding soda: Adding sodium carbonate (washing soda) also reacts with calcium and magnesium ions to precipitate them out, removing permanent hardness.

The correct answer is (d) All factors mentioned above.
Explanation: When a person sweats excessively in hot weather, they lose a significant amount of water through evaporation, which leads to dehydration and weakness. Sweat also contains electrolytes like sodium and potassium, so excessive sweating can lead to electrolyte imbalance, further contributing to weakness. While the body doesn’t lose a significant amount of carbohydrates through sweat, the overall process of sweating can deplete energy stores as the body works to compensate for the fluid and electrolyte loss.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Loss of more water through evaporation: While water loss is the primary factor behind the weakness associated with excessive sweating, the loss of salts and electrolytes is also significant.
(b) Loss of salts through evaporation: Although sweat contains salts, the body loses both water and salts during perspiration. Losing just salts would not fully explain the weakness experienced.
(c) Loss of carbohydrates through evaporation: The body does not lose carbohydrates through evaporation. Carbohydrates are complex molecules that are broken down for energy within the body. Sweat is primarily composed of water, electrolytes, and some urea.

The correct answer is (b) By grafting one with the other.
Explanation: Grafting is a horticultural technique where a part of one plant (the scion) is joined to another plant (the rootstock). When a tomato plant and a brinjal plant are grafted together, each branch can produce its respective fruit, resulting in a single plant with both tomatoes and brinjals.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) By hybridization: Hybridization involves crossing two different plants to produce offspring with mixed traits. However, in this scenario, the same plant is producing different fruits, not a hybrid offspring. A true hybrid of tomato and brinjal would have a uniform fruit type, not separate branches producing different fruits.
(c) By nature’s freak: While genetic mutations can occur, it’s highly unlikely that a single plant would naturally develop separate branches producing tomatoes and brinjals. Nature’s freaks usually involve unusual variations within a single species, not the production of entirely different fruits on the same plant.
(d) By (a) or (c) mentioned above: Since option (a) is incorrect, (d) is also incorrect as it includes an inaccurate explanation.

The density of seawater is highest when (a) Depth increases and salinity increases.
Explanation: Density in seawater is primarily influenced by two factors: salinity and temperature. Higher salinity means more dissolved salts in the water, which leads to greater density. Additionally, while temperature generally decreases with depth, its effect on density is less pronounced than that of salinity. Therefore, when both depth and salinity increase, the seawater becomes denser.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Depth decreases and salinity increases: Although increased salinity does contribute to higher density, decreasing depth counteracts this effect. A decrease in depth means less water column above a given point, which exerts less pressure and can lead to a slight decrease in density.
(c) Depth increases and salinity decreases: While increased depth can lead to higher pressure, a decrease in salinity would offset this. Lower salinity means less dissolved salts, resulting in lower density.
(d) Depth decreases and salinity decreases: Both decreasing depth and salinity would contribute to lower density. Decreasing depth reduces pressure and less salt would mean less mass per unit volume, resulting in lower density.

The function of the liver is to (c) store glucose as glycogen.
Explanation: The liver plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels by storing excess glucose as glycogen after a meal, and then releasing it back into the bloodstream when needed.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Promote digestion of food: While the liver is involved in digestion by producing bile, its primary function is not digestion itself. Bile helps break down fats in the small intestine.
(b) Promote respiration: Respiration is the process of exchanging gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide). The liver is not directly involved in this process.
(d) None of these: This option is incorrect because the liver does have a well-defined function in storing glucose as glycogen.

The correct answer is (d) Kill the micro organisms and other harmful bacteria.
Explanation:
Pasteurization is a process where milk is heated to a specific temperature for a set time to eliminate harmful bacteria present in the milk, thereby ensuring its safety for consumption. While the process doesn’t necessarily kill all bacteria, it does target the potentially dangerous ones.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Kill the micro-organisms: This is too general. Pasteurization doesn’t kill all microorganisms in the milk, only the harmful ones. Some beneficial bacteria might remain.
(b) Kill all bacteria: This is incorrect. Pasteurization doesn’t kill all bacteria in milk, only the harmful ones. The process is designed to ensure safety by eliminating pathogens that can cause illness, not to sterilize the milk completely.
(c) Store it for a long time without coagulation: While pasteurization does extend the shelf life of milk by preventing the growth of harmful bacteria and spoilage, this isn’t the primary purpose of the process. The main goal is to kill harmful bacteria.

The correct answer is (c) The moisture and temperature of grains.
Explanation: While both moisture and temperature play crucial roles in the growth of pests in stored grains, moisture is generally considered the more critical factor. High moisture content creates an ideal environment for the development of insects, fungi, and bacteria. These organisms require water for their metabolic processes, and high moisture provides a readily available source.
Temperature also significantly impacts pest activity: Higher temperatures accelerate the rate of insect development, reproduction, and metabolism. This means that grains stored at warmer temperatures are more susceptible to pest infestation. The combination of high moisture and favorable temperature creates the optimal conditions for pest growth and infestation.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) The moisture of grains: Although moisture is the primary factor, temperature also plays a significant role. Moisture alone can encourage the growth of some microorganisms but not necessarily pests.
(b) The temperature of grains: While temperature is important for pest development, its impact is less pronounced than that of moisture. High temperatures can accelerate pest activity, but if moisture content is low, pest growth will be limited.
(d) None of the above: This option is incorrect because both moisture and temperature are essential factors for pest growth in stored grains.

The age of a tree can be accurately determined by (a) counting the number of rings.
Explaination: Each ring represents one year of growth.


Why other options are incorrect:
(b) By thickness of the bark: While bark thickness can be influenced by age and environmental factors, it’s not a reliable method for determining the exact age of a tree. Bark thickness can vary significantly due to species, location, and even the age of the particular section of bark.
(c) By bulk of the tree: The bulk (or girth) of a tree is also not a precise indicator of age. Tree girth can be affected by various factors like water availability, sunlight, and soil conditions, which change from year to year.
(d) By number of leaves: The number of leaves on a tree is not related to its age. Trees can have different numbers of leaves depending on the season, health, and other factors.

The correct answer is (a) Survival of the fittest and struggle for existence.
Explanation: Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection is based on the concept of “survival of the fittest,” meaning that organisms with traits better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. This process is often described as a “struggle for existence” as organisms compete for limited resources.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Weak and strong always maintain a fixed proportion: This statement contradicts the core idea of evolution. Darwin’s theory suggests that populations change over time as organisms with advantageous traits become more prevalent, not that the weak and strong always stay in the same ratio.
(c) Different species do not arise by genetic mutation: This is incorrect. While mutation is a source of genetic variation, it is a key component of the evolutionary process. New species can arise through the accumulation of beneficial mutations over generations.
(d) None of these: This is incorrect because “survival of the fittest and struggle for existence” are central tenets of Darwin’s theory.

The correct answer is (a) The pressure of the blood capillaries is higher than the outside pressure.

Explanation: At high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is significantly lower than the pressure inside the blood vessels, causing them to burst and bleed, especially in sensitive areas like the nose.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) The pressure at high altitudes is greater than that in the plains: This is the opposite of what happens. At high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure decreases compared to sea level, leading to the pressure difference that causes bleeding.
(c) The blood pressure increases at high altitudes: While some physiological adjustments occur at high altitudes, the primary cause of nosebleeds is not an increase in blood pressure but rather the decrease in external atmospheric pressure.
(d) The blood pressure decreases at high altitudes: This is incorrect. Blood pressure generally remains relatively constant, and it’s the decrease in atmospheric pressure that creates the problem. 

The correct answer: (b) Increased number of molecules at low temperature

Explanation :

• Air is a mixture of gases, composed of molecules that are in constant motion.
• When air cools, the molecules’ movement slows down.
• This reduced molecular motion allows the molecules to come closer together, leading to a decrease in the spacing between them.
• As a result, more air molecules occupy the same volume at a lower temperature compared to a higher temperature.
• Since density is defined as mass per unit volume (ρ = m/V), with more molecules (and thus more mass) in the same volume, the density of the cold air increases.
• Therefore, a liter of cold air will weigh heavier than a liter of warm air.

Why the other options are incorrect
(a) Increased number of collisions between the molecules: When air is heated, molecules move faster and collide more frequently, leading to a decrease in density, not an increase.
(b) Greater energy of molecules at high temperature: While molecules do have greater energy at higher temperatures, this leads to increased spacing and expansion, causing a decrease in density, not an increase in weight for the same volume.
(c) Lower energy of molecules at high temperature: This statement is incorrect. Higher temperatures mean greater molecular energy and movement, while lower temperatures mean lower molecular energy.

The correct answer is (a) Fertilisation of ovum takes place in the test tube but it develops in the uterus.
Explanation: In vitro fertilization (IVF), the process behind “test tube babies,” involves fertilization of the egg and sperm outside the body, in a laboratory setting. However, once the fertilized egg (zygote) is formed, it is then transferred to the woman’s uterus where it continues to develop and grow into a baby.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Fertilisation of ovum takes place in the test tube and develops in the test tube itself: While fertilization occurs outside the body in IVF, the embryo needs the uterine environment for proper development. Test tubes are not capable of providing the necessary conditions for fetal growth.
(c) Fertilisation of the ovum takes place in the uterus but develops in the test tube: This option is the reverse of what actually happens. Fertilization must take place outside the body (in vitro) for the baby to be considered a “test tube baby”.
(d) Fertilisation takes place in uterus and embryo develops in uterus: This describes a normal pregnancy, not a test tube pregnancy. In a test tube baby, fertilization occurs outside the body.

The metal used in electromagnets is (a) Soft iron.
Explanation: Soft iron is preferred because it can be easily magnetized and demagnetized when a current is applied or removed, making it ideal for electromagnets where quick switching is needed.
Why other options are incorrect
(b) Stainless steel: While stainless steel is magnetic, it has a higher retentivity than soft iron, meaning it retains some magnetism even after the current stops flowing. This makes it less suitable for electromagnets.
(c) Cobalt: Cobalt is a ferromagnetic metal with high magnetic strength, but it is not as readily magnetized and demagnetized as soft iron.
(d) Copper: Copper is primarily used in the wire windings of an electromagnet, not as the core material. It conducts electricity well, allowing for the creation of a magnetic field when current flows through the wire.

The correct answer is (c) They produce ultrasonics.
Explanation: Bats use a process called echolocation to navigate in the dark. They emit high-frequency sound waves called ultrasonic waves from their mouths or noses, which bounce off objects and return to the bat, allowing them to detect the location, distance, and size of objects around them.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) They have a better vision in the dark: While bats do have some night vision, it’s not their primary means of navigation. Their ultrasonic abilities are far more crucial for navigating in the dark.
(b) The light startles them: Light can actually interfere with bats’ echolocation. Bright lights can disrupt their ability to detect prey and navigate.
(d) None of the above: This option is incorrect because the ability to produce ultrasonic waves is the key reason bats can fly in the dark.

The correct answer is (a) Maharashtra.
Explanation: Ajanta Caves are located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra.
Why other Options are incorrect: 
(b) Gujarat: Gujarat does not have the Ajanta Caves. The important caves in Gujarat are primarily the Junagadh Buddhist Cave Groups and the Khambhalida Caves.
(c) Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu does not have the Ajanta Caves. The important caves in Tamil Nadu are Sittanavasal Caves, Mahabalipuram Caves (including Varaha Cave Temple), and Guna Caves (also known as Devil’s Kitchen)
(d) West Bengal: West Bengal does not have the Ajanta Caves. Jayanti Mahakal Cave in Buxa and Gangani is an Important Cave

Consumer welfare is indicated by (b) Disposable income.
Explanation: Consumer welfare refers to the level of satisfaction consumers derive from consuming goods and services. Disposable income represents the amount of money available to consumers after taxes and other mandatory expenses. Having a higher disposable income allows individuals to purchase more goods and services, thus potentially increasing their welfare.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Savings: While savings can contribute to future consumption and financial security, they are not a direct indicator of current consumer welfare. Savings represent money that is not being spent currently, not the level of satisfaction derived from consumption.
(c) Expenditure: Expenditure represents the amount of money spent on goods and services. While higher expenditure can be associated with higher consumption, it doesn’t necessarily reflect overall welfare. Someone with high expenditure and low income might not experience high welfare. Consumer welfare is more about the balance between income and expenditure and the utility derived from consumption.
(d) None of the above: This option is incorrect. Disposable income is a key indicator of consumer welfare.

The correct answer is (a) Closing and opening the holes.
Explanation: When a flute player closes or opens the holes on the flute, they change the length of the air column inside the instrument. This change in length directly affects the frequency of the sound produced, resulting in different notes. Closing a hole effectively lengthens the air column, producing a lower pitch. Conversely, opening a hole shortens the air column, producing a higher pitch.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Closing the holes: While closing holes does change the pitch, it’s not the whole story. Opening holes also affects the pitch.
(c) Closing the alternate holes: Although closing alternate holes can certainly change the pitch, it’s not the only way to produce different notes. Closing any combination of holes can create a variety of sounds.
(d) Closing the last two holes: Closing the last two holes is just one specific combination of hole closures. A flute player can produce different notes by closing any combination of holes, not just the last two.

The correct answer is (b) Koyna.
Explanation: Koyna Hydroelectric Project: Considered the largest completed hydroelectric power plant in India, with a capacity of 1960 MW.
Why Other Options are incorrect
(a) Bhakra Nangal Project: While a significant hydroelectric project, it is not as large as Koyna. It has a capacity of 1,325 MW.
(c) Hirakud Project: Another large hydroelectric project in India, but not as large as Koyna. The Hirakud Dam has an installed capacity of 359.8 MW
(d) Salal Project: Another large hydroelectric project in India, but not as large as Koyna. The Salal Project, has a total installed capacity of 690 MW

The most remarkable aspect of Indian industry since independence is (d) Diversification.
Explanation: While India has seen growth in employment opportunities, increased production, and capacity utilization, the most significant change has been its shift from a primarily agrarian economy to one with a diverse range of industries, including IT, pharmaceuticals, automobiles, and renewable energy. This diversification has been crucial for fostering economic stability and resilience.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) More employment opportunities: While India has seen a significant increase in employment opportunities, particularly in the service sector, diversification is a more fundamental change that underpins this growth. Employment opportunities are a result of increased production and economic activity, which are driven by diversification.
(b) Increase in production: Although increased production is a positive development, it’s a consequence of diversification, not the defining feature of India’s industrial transformation. Increased production can occur in various sectors without necessarily signifying a shift in the overall industrial structure.
(c) Capacity utilization: Capacity utilization refers to the efficiency of using existing production facilities. While important for economic growth, it is a metric that measures the effectiveness of existing industries rather than the change in their composition. Diversification represents a structural shift in the industrial landscape, whereas capacity utilization focuses on optimizing existing operations within a given sector.

The correct answer is (d) It caters mostly to the rural population.
Explanation: Cottage industries are characterized by small-scale production often done at home or in small workshops using readily available local raw materials and simple tools. They typically employ a large number of people from the local community, often working with family members. While some products might not require power for production, the main reason for high production despite low productivity is their focus on catering to the local rural population where demand for their goods is high and the infrastructure for large-scale production is limited.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) It employs a large number of people: While cottage industries do employ a large number of people, this is not the primary reason for their high production. The high number of employees is a consequence of the labor-intensive nature of cottage production, not the cause of its high output.
(b) No power is needed to manufacture most of the products: While some cottage industries may not require significant power usage due to their simple technology, this is not the main reason for their high production. Many cottage industries do utilize power, especially in more modern setups.
(c) Raw material is generally available locally: Although readily available local raw materials is a characteristic of cottage industries, it’s not the direct cause of high production. Local raw materials contribute to lower costs and accessibility, but the high production volume stems from the ability to cater to the large local rural demand with a simple production setup.

The correct answer is (a) Leather and meat.
Explanation:

• Leather: This is derived from the skin of animals, making it an animal product.
• Meat: This is the flesh of animals, again considered an animal product.

Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Silk and polyester: While silk is an animal product, polyester is a synthetic fiber, meaning it is made from chemicals and not derived from animals.
(c) Linen and silk: Linen is a plant fiber, derived from the flax plant, making it a plant product.
(d) Cotton and silk: Although silk is an animal product, cotton is a plant fiber.

The correct answer is (d) None of the above other options are incorrect.
Explanation: While some methods like using organic fertilizers and specific irrigation techniques like drip irrigation can help manage soil salinity, these are not mentoned in the options
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Spreading of husk on the soil: While organic amendments like husk can improve soil health and structure, they are not considered a recent discovery for reducing salinity. Spreading husk primarily improves soil texture and organic matter content, not necessarily removing existing salts.
(b) Extensive use of fertilizers: Although certain types of fertilizers, when used correctly, can help manage salinity by improving nutrient uptake and reducing salt stress, their extensive use without proper management often leads to salt accumulation in the soil. This makes (b) an incorrect answer, as it describes a practice that can worsen, not alleviate, salinity.
(c) Intensive use of fertilizers, if not managed properly, can exacerbate soil salinity by contributing excess salts to the soil.

The correct answer is (c) Both of the above.
Explanation: A government’s trade policy can encompass a variety of strategies, and both export promotion and import substitution are common components.
Export promotion: This policy aims to encourage domestic businesses to export their goods and services by offering incentives like tax breaks, subsidies, or logistical support. This helps boost a country’s exports and generate foreign revenue.
Import substitution: This strategy focuses on reducing imports by protecting domestic industries from foreign competition. This can be achieved through measures like tariffs, quotas, or subsidies to domestic producers.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Export promotion: While export promotion is a valid part of a government’s trade policy, it doesn’t encompass the entire picture. A complete trade policy would likely include measures to both promote exports and manage imports.
(b) Export promotion: Similarly Import Substitution, doesn’t encompass the entire picture. A complete trade policy would likely include measures to both promote exports and manage imports.
(d) None of the above: This option is incorrect because both export promotion and import substitution are recognized as key elements of a government’s trade policy.

The factor that has most significantly changed India’s landscape in the last century is (b) Movement of people from rural to urban areas.
Explanation: Urbanization has led to massive changes in land use, with the development of cities and infrastructure expanding rapidly across the country. This has also caused changes in agricultural practices, deforestation, and shifts in population distribution.
Why other options are incorrect
(a) Irrigation: While irrigation has significantly improved agricultural productivity and changed land use in some areas, its impact is not as widespread or transformative as urbanization.
(c) Industrialization: Industrialization has contributed to economic growth and development, but its primary impact on the landscape is through the creation of industrial zones rather than sweeping changes across the entire country.
(d) Deforestation: Deforestation has had a significant negative impact on the environment and land use, but it is a consequence of other factors like population growth and agricultural expansion rather than a primary driver of change in the landscape itself.

The correct answer is (a) Elected by the provincial assemblies.
Explanation : The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
This means that the provincial assemblies, which were themselves elected bodies, in turn elected the members of the Constituent Assembly. This process took place according to the scheme recommended by the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
The elections were held in July 1946. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was initially set at 389. However, after the partition of the country, the number of members was reduced to 299. Of these, 229 were from the British Indian provinces and 70 were nominated from the princely states. The method used for these elections was a single, transferable-vote system of proportional representation.

Why other options are incorrect
(b) Elected directly by the people: The members of the Constituent Assembly were not directly elected by the people of India. The election was indirect, with members chosen by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. These Provincial Legislative Assemblies themselves were elected on a limited franchise.
(c) Nominated by the government: While some members were nominated, the government did not nominate them. The representatives of the princely states were nominated by the heads of those princely states, not by the British government or the interim government of India. The Constituent Assembly was thus a partly elected and partly nominated body.
(d) Only representatives of princely states: The Constituent Assembly included representatives from both British Indian provinces and princely states. The majority of members were elected from the British Indian provinces, while the princely states’ representatives were nominated.

The correct answer is (c) It can withhold the bill for 14 days to make recommendations.
Explanation: Position of Rajya Sabha with regard to Money Bills
1) Limited Power: The Rajya Sabha has very limited power regarding Money Bills. It cannot amend or reject a Money Bill.
2) Recommendation Power: However, the Rajya Sabha can only suggest recommendations to the Lok Sabha regarding the Money Bill.
3) Timeframe: The Rajya Sabha must return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha with or without recommendations within 14 days of receiving it.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) It can amend it: The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill.
(b) It can reject it: The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.
(d) It has no power regarding Money Bill: While the Rajya Sabha’s power regarding Money Bills is limited, it does have the power to suggest recommendations, making option (d) incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) Moscow and New Delhi. The 1980 Summer Olympics were held in Moscow, and the 1982 Asian Games were held in New Delhi.
Explanation:
1980 Moscow Olympics: The 1980 Summer Olympics, also known as the XXII Olympiad, were held in Moscow, which was then part of the Soviet Union.
1982 New Delhi Asian Games: The 9th Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India. This was the second time Delhi hosted the Asian Games, the first being the inaugural games in 1951.
Summer Olympics: The 2026 Winter Olympics will be held in Milan and Cortina d’Ampezzo, Italy, while the 2028 Summer Olympics will be held in Los Angeles.
Asian Games: The next Asian Games are scheduled to be held in Bangkok. The 2026 Asian Games will be held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) New Delhi and Moscow: This option is incorrect because the 1980 Olympics were in Moscow, and the 1982 Asian Games were in New Delhi, not the other way around.
(c) Montreal and Bangkok: The Montreal Olympics were held in 1976, not 1980, and the 1982 Asian Games were in New Delhi, not Bangkok.
(d) Moscow and Bangkok: While Moscow did host the 1980 Olympics, the 1982 Asian Games were held in New Delhi, not Bangkok. Bangkok hosted the Asian Games in 1970 and 1978, but not in 1982.

The correct answer is (c) Shapour Bakhtiar.
Explanation:
Shapour Bakhtiar: The Shah appointed Shapour Bakhtiar as Prime Minister shortly before leaving the country.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Mehdi Bazargan: While Mehdi Bazargan became the Prime Minister of the interim government after the Shah left, he was not in that position when the Shah departed.
(b) Ayatollah Khomeini: Ayatollah Khomeini was the leader of the Iranian Revolution and ultimately became the Supreme Leader, but he was not the Prime Minister when the Shah left.
(d) None of the above: Incorrect as Shapour Bakhtia is correct

The Correct answer is (c)
Explanation: The primary cause of inflation is a combination of two factors:
1) Increase in money supply: When there is an excess amount of money circulating in the economy relative to the available goods and services, the value of each unit of currency decreases, leading to higher prices.
2) Fall in production: A decrease in the supply of goods and services, whether due to disruptions, natural disasters, or other factors, can also contribute to rising prices as demand exceeds the available supply.

Why other Options are Incorrect
(a) Increase in money supply alone is not the only main cause.
(b) Similarly a fall in production alone is not the only main cause.
(d) Decrease in money supply and fall in production: This scenario would likely lead to deflation, not inflation, as a decrease in the money supply would put downward pressure on price

The correct answer is (b) 1964 as per options at that time of question paper setting. The last time India won a Hockey Olympic Gold Medal was in 1980 at the Moscow Olympics.
Explanation : India won gold medals in hockey in the following years: 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, and 1980. The Indian men’s hockey team recently secured a bronze medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics, marking their second consecutive Olympic medal after a long drought. In Tokyo after Securing Bronze marked a 41-year wait, the Indian men’s hockey team won an Olympic medal since the gold at the 1980 Moscow Olympics.
Why Other Options are incorrect:
(a) 1960: India won a silver medal at the 1960 Olympics, losing to Pakistan in the final.
(c) 1968: India won a bronze medal at the 1968 Olympics, losing to Australia in the semi-final.
(d) 1972: India won a bronze medal at the 1972 Olympics, losing to Pakistan in the semi-final.

The correct answer is (a) New Delhi in 1950
Explanation : The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, in 1951, not 1950.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Bangkok in 1952: Bangkok did host the Asian Games later, but not the first edition. The second Asian Games were held in Manila in 1954, and the fourth in Jakarta in 1962.
(c) Singapore in 1952: Singapore has never hosted the Asian Games.
(d) Kuala Lumpur in 1952: Kuala Lumpur has hosted the Asian Games, but not the first one. It hosted the 1995 games.

The correct answer is (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. He famously declared, “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.”
Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and a strong advocate for Swaraj (self-rule). He popularized this slogan during the early 20th century, emphasizing that Indians had a right to govern themselves.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) M.K. Gandhi: While Mahatma Gandhi was a key figure in the Indian independence movement and advocated for Swaraj, he did not originate the phrase “Swaraj is my birthright”.
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai: Lala Lajpat Rai was another prominent nationalist leader, but the slogan “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it” is specifically associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
(d) Sardar Patel: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a key leader of the Indian National Congress, but he is not known to have used this specific slogan.

Famous Quotes by These Freedom Fighters 

Bal Gangadhar Tilak
“Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it!”:
“The problem is not the lack of resources or capability, but the lack of will.”:
“If God is put up with untouchability, I will not call him God.”:
“Life is all about a card game. Selecting the right card is not in our hand. But playing well with the cards in hand determines our success.”:
“It may be providence’s will that the cause I represent may prosper more by my suffering than by my remaining free.”

M.K. Gandhi:
“Be the change that you wish to see in the world.”
“An eye for an eye only ends up making the whole world blind.”
“Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever.”
“Strength does not come from physical capacity. It comes from an indomitable will.”
“The future depends on what we do in the present.”
“Non-violence is the greatest force at the disposal of mankind.”

Lala Lajpat Rai:
“True patriotism demands a fearless attitude towards injustice.”
“Education is the key to empowerment; it lights the path to progress.”
“Strive for excellence in every endeavor, and success will follow.”
“The strength of a nation lies in the character of its people.”
“The shots that hit me are the last nails to the coffin of British rule in India.”

Sardar Patel:
“Faith and strength, both are essential to accomplish any great work.”
“Manpower without unity is not a strength unless it is harmonized and united properly, then it becomes a spiritual power.”
“Today we must remove distinctions of high and low, rich and poor, caste or creed.”
“The main task before India today is to consolidate herself into a well-knit and united power.”
“Satyagraha is not a creed for the weak or the cowardly.”

Gresham’s Law is related to (b) Circulation of currency.
Explanation: Gresham’s Law states that when two currencies of different values are in circulation, people tend to spend the less valuable currency (“bad money”) and hoard the more valuable currency (“good money”), effectively driving the “good money” out of circulation. This is because people will prioritize keeping the higher-value currency for future use and readily spend the lower-value one.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Supply and demand: While Gresham’s Law can impact supply and demand dynamics, it is a more specific principle concerning the behavior of individuals when faced with different currencies, not the broader economic forces of supply and demand.
(c) Consumption and supply: Consumption and supply are fundamental economic concepts related to the production and consumption of goods and services. Gresham’s Law focuses specifically on the circulation of money, not the dynamics of overall economic activity.
(d) Distribution of goods and services: Distribution of goods and services refers to how goods and services are allocated within an economy. Gresham’s Law deals with the movement of money itself, not how goods and services are distributed.

The correct answer is (b) By hike in oil prices by OPEC and rise in taxi fares all over.
Explanation: Economic interdependence means countries rely on each other for goods and services. A hike in oil prices by OPEC, a cartel of oil-producing nations, significantly impacts the global economy. Since oil is a crucial input for many industries, rising prices can ripple through supply chains, affecting production costs and consumer prices worldwide. This demonstrates how changes in one country’s economy (oil production) can have repercussions for other countries, proving interdependence. The rise in taxi fares, while seemingly unrelated, can also be a consequence of higher fuel costs, further illustrating the interconnectedness of global economies.

Why other options are incorrect:
(a) By turmoil in Iran: While Iran is a significant oil producer, turmoil there can disrupt oil supplies and lead to price fluctuations. However, this alone doesn’t prove global interdependence, as many other countries are involved in the oil trade and have economic relationships beyond oil.
(c) Because India has political relations with almost all countries of the world: Political relations can facilitate economic interactions but are not the sole proof of interdependence. Even countries with limited political ties can be economically interdependent through trade and investment.
(d) Because multinationals have set up a number of projects in India: Multinationals operating in various countries can contribute to economic interdependence. However, their presence alone doesn’t prove the overall interdependence of all countries. Many smaller economies may not have significant interactions with large multinationals.

The Government’s gold auction policy is primarily aimed at (a) Checking of smuggling and reducing the budgetary deficit of the Central Government.
Explanation:
Gold Smuggling: By actively auctioning seized gold, the government can discourage smuggling by making it harder for smugglers to sell their illicit gold on the open market.
Reducing Budgetary Deficit: Gold auctions generate revenue for the government, which can help to offset its budget deficit.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Promoting jewellery exports: While the policy might indirectly impact exports by increasing the domestic supply of gold, it’s not its primary objective.
(c) Making gold available to consumers for ornaments: The goal is not to directly make gold more accessible to consumers, but rather to manage the overall gold supply and address smuggling.
(d) Price stabilization: Although auctions can potentially influence gold prices, their main purpose is not price stabilization.

The correct answer is (a) Kerala & Maharashtra
Explanation: Kerala secured the top position While Maharashtra was second in 25th National Games. The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) topped the medal tally at the 38th National Games in Uttarakhand, held from January 28 to February 14, 2025. Maharashtra secured the second position, despite winning more total medals than Services.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Maharashtra & Punjab : While Maharashtra was second 25th National Games, Punjab is not mentioned as being in the top position
(c) Punjab and Kerala: Neither Kerala nor Punjab are mentioned as being in the top two positions for the 25th National Games.
(d) Punjab and Madhya Pradesh: Punjab is not mentioned as being in the top positions, and while Madhya Pradesh is listed as fourth, they are not second.

The correct answer is (d) Restores to the High Courts and to the Supreme Court their jurisdiction to consider the validity of any Central or State law.
Explanation: The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution primarily dealt with changes related to the right to property and the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts. It is important to note that the 44th Amendment is often incorrectly numbered as the 43rd Amendment in some sources.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Ensures the right to property: The 44th Amendment actually removed the right to property as a fundamental right from the Constitution by repealing Articles 31 and 19(1)(f). While the right to property still exists constitutionally under Article 300A, it is no longer considered a fundamental right.
(b) Ensures the press freedom: The 44th Amendment did not significantly impact press freedom. It focused primarily on the right to property and judicial jurisdiction. While changes related to emergency powers could indirectly affect press freedom, the amendment itself was not directly concerned with it.
(c) Limits the powers of the Government to proclaim internal emergency: Although the 44th Amendment made changes to various aspects of the Constitution, including emergency provisions, its primary focus was on removing the right to property and adjusting judicial jurisdiction. There were some amendments related to emergency powers, but these were not the core purpose of the 44th Amendment.

(b) Bangladesh National Party as per 1979 Question Paper .
Explanation: General elections were held in Bangladesh on 18 February 1979. The result was a victory for the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP). General elections were held in Bangladesh on 7 January 2024 in accordance with the constitutional requirement The Awami League party hailed a significant victory for the fourth straight term, with Sheikh Hasina as PM
Why the other options are incorrect:
(a) National Awami League: The National Awami Party (NAP), while a political force, did not win the majority in the 1979 elections. The Awami League became the main opposition party after securing 39 seats in the election.
(c) Bangladesh People’s Party: The Bangladesh People’s Party was not the party that won the majority in the 1979 elections.
(d) None of these: Since the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP) won the majority, this option is incorrect.

The Correct answer is Both (a) and (b)
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution, through its Seventh Schedule, divides legislative powers between the Central and State governments across three lists:
Union List: Subjects on which only the Central Government can legislate (e.g., defense, foreign affairs).
State List: Subjects on which only the State Governments can legislate (e.g., police, public order).
Concurrent List: Subjects on which both the Central and State Governments can legislate. In case of a conflict, the Central law prevails.
Let’s examine the given options:
(a) Forests: Originally on the State List, Forests were moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) Education: Similar to forests, Education was also moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
Therefore, both Forests and Education are contained in the Concurrent List. However, the original question format implies a single correct answer. If forced to choose only one, it depends on context, but given both are factually correct, a question with only one correct option would ideally list them individually or as “Both a and b”.

Why Other Options are incorrect
(c) Police: Police is a subject that falls under the State List.
(d) Agriculture: Agriculture is also included in the State List.

The answer is (d) All factors listed above contributed to a setback in India-US relations in the first half of 1978.
Explanation:
(a) U.S. declining for the supply of uranium for Tarapur atomic power plant: The US had been delaying shipments of enriched uranium fuel to India after India’s 1974 nuclear test, and this issue continued into 1978. The US cited concerns about India’s refusal to accept stricter safeguards on its nuclear facilities, as outlined in the 1978 Nuclear Non-Proliferation Act.
(b) U.S. pressuring India to sign the Non-Proliferation Treaty: The US enacted the 1978 Nuclear Non-Proliferation Act which required countries not included in the NPT (like India) to allow international inspections of their nuclear facilities. India considered the NPT discriminatory and refused to sign it, leading to pressure from the US.
(c) Banning the consumption of Coca Cola in the country: While not directly related to nuclear issues, this was a significant point of contention in India-US relations. The Indian government in 1977, under the new Janata Party government, demanded that Coca-Cola dilute its equity stake in its Indian associate and share its formula. When Coca-Cola refused, it was asked to leave the country. This move was viewed as a step towards promoting self-reliance and asserting economic independence from foreign companies.

The principal language of Nagaland is (a) English.
Explanation: Nagaland’s official language is English, used in government, education, and other official contexts.
Why other options are incorrect
(b) Naga: While various Naga languages are spoken by different tribes, they are not the official or principal language of the state.
(c) Assamese: Assamese is a major language in neighboring Assam, but is not the official language of Nagaland.
(d) Khasi: Khasi is the language spoken in the state of Meghalaya, not Nagaland.

In a parliamentary system, the executive is responsible (b) to the legislature.
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, the executive branch (like a cabinet of ministers) is drawn from the legislative branch, meaning they are accountable to the parliament and can be removed from office if they lose a vote of no confidence.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Directly to the people: While the executive is ultimately chosen by the people through elections, their direct responsibility lies with the legislature, not the people directly.
(c) To judiciary: The judiciary is responsible for interpreting the law and ensuring it is upheld, not overseeing the actions of the executive.
(d) None of the above: This option is incorrect because the executive is clearly responsible to the legislature.

The correct answer is (b) The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Explanation: The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both houses of Parliament, which are the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) The people directly: The Vice-President is not elected directly by the people. They are elected by the members of Parliament.
(c) The members of Rajya Sabha only: While the Rajya Sabha is part of the electoral college, the Vice-President is elected by members of both houses of Parliament, including the Lok Sabha.
(d) The members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislatures: The Constitution specifies that the Vice-President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament, not including State Legislatures.

The language that was added to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India most recently is Sindhi. It was added through the 21st Amendment in 1967 which was recent at that time
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists the official languages of India. Initially, the schedule had 14 languages. Subsequent amendments have added more languages. The 21st Amendment in 1967 added Sindhi. Other languages added later include Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali (71st Amendment) 1992 and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali (92nd Amendment) 2003.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Urdu: Urdu was already one of the 14 languages originally included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(b) Sanskrit: Similar to Urdu, Sanskrit was also one of the 14 languages originally included in the Eighth Schedule.
(d) Assamese: Assamese was also one of the 14 languages originally included in the Eighth Schedule.

The answer is (c) Secularism.
Explanation: While secularism is a fundamental principle of the Indian government, it is not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence: This is explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Duty in Article 51A(g) of the Constitution.
(b) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India: This is also listed as a Fundamental Duty in Article 51A(f) of the Constitution.
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals: This is directly stated in Article 51A(a) as a Fundamental Duty.

The correct answer is (b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
Explanation: India Wins Freedom is an enlightening account of the partition from the author, Maulana Azad’s perspective. It includes his personal experiences when India became independent and his ideas on freedom and liberty.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Rajendra Prasad: While Rajendra Prasad was a prominent Indian leader, he is known for being the first President of independent India, not for writing “India Wins Freedom”. He wrote a different book called “India Divided” which argued against partition.
(c) R.N. Tagore: Rabindranath Tagore was a renowned poet, philosopher, and Nobel laureate. He is famous for writing “Gitanjali” and other works of literature, but not “India Wins Freedom”.
(d) J.L. Nehru: Jawaharlal Nehru was a key figure in the Indian independence movement and became the first Prime Minister of India. He wrote several books, including his autobiography “Discovery of India,” but not “India Wins Freedom”.

The correct answer is (a) British Monarch.
Explanation: The President of India, like the British Monarch, is a largely ceremonial head of state with limited powers. They primarily function as a symbol of the nation and have the authority to appoint certain officials, such as the Prime Minister, but the real executive power lies with the Council of Ministers.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) President of U.S.A.: The President of the U.S.A. is a powerful head of government with significant executive authority. They can veto legislation, issue executive orders, and appoint judges to the federal courts. This is a much more active role than the Indian President.
(c) President of Egypt: While Egypt’s political system has undergone changes, the President historically held considerable power, often acting as both head of state and government. This is different from the Indian model where the President is primarily ceremonial.
(d) President of U.S.S.R. (former Soviet Union): The President of the U.S.S.R. was the head of state and the Communist Party, wielding immense power over the government and society. This is a stark contrast to the limited authority of the Indian President.

The answer is (a) Switzerland.
Explanation: Switzerland joined the UN on 10 September 2002, as a consequence of a popular initiative accepted by popular vote on 3 March 2002. So at the time it was not a member
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Bahamas: Bahamas is a member of the UN. It joined on September 21, 1971.
(c) Mauritius: Mauritius became a member of the United Nations on April 24, 1968.
(d) Dominican Republic: Dominican Republic is a member of the UN. It joined October 14, 1945.

The per capita income of India in 1977-78 at 1970-71 prices was Rs. 690.
Explanation: According to historical economic data, the per capita income of India in 1977-78, adjusted for 1970-71 prices, was Rs. 690.
Concept of Per Capita Income: Per capita income is calculated by dividing the total income of a country by its population. It reflects the average income earned per person in a given area in a specified year. When comparing per capita income over different time periods, it’s important to use constant prices (adjusted for inflation) to ensure a fair comparison.
Why other options are incorrect:
The question asks for the per capita income at 1970-71 prices, which means the income is adjusted for inflation to make comparisons across different years meaningful. The provided options (a, c, and d) are all different figures that are not consistent with historical per capita income data for India during that period.

The correct answer is (b) 25 years old.
Explanation: A candidate to become a member of the Lok Sabha must be at least 25 years old. This is specified in Article 84 (b) of the Indian Constitution.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) 21 years: 21 years is the minimum age to be a voter, not a candidate for Lok Sabha.
(c) 30 years: 30 years is the minimum age for contesting elections to the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament).
(d) 35 years: 35 years is the minimum age for contesting elections for the President or the Governor of a state.

The correct answer is (a) Right to property and (c) Right to vote in all elections:
Explanation :
(a) The Right to property was initially included as a fundamental right in the Indian Constitution (under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31).
However, it was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. It is now a legal right under Article 300A of the Constitution. This means the state cannot arbitrarily deprive a person of their property, but it can do so under the authority of law.
(c) Right to vote in all elections: While crucial for a democracy, the Right to Vote is a constitutional right, not a Fundamental Right. Article 326 of the Constitution grants every citizen the right to vote if they meet certain criteria (age, not disqualified by law).
Why the other options are incorrect
(b) Right to freedom of religion: This is a fundamental right guaranteed by Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution, ensuring the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate any religion. This right is subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions of Part III.
(d) Right to freedom of speech and expression: This is a fundamental right guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. This right allows citizens to freely express their thoughts, opinions, and ideas through various mediums. However, this freedom is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions (e.g., in the interest of national security, public order, decency, or morality).

The correct answer is (b) Freedom of religion and worship to all citizens.
Explanation: Secularism: This term means the separation of religion from political, economic, and social life, meaning the state does not favor any particular religion and allows all citizens the freedom to practice their faith without discrimination.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Keeping away from all religions: While secularism involves a separation of religion from the state, it does not necessarily mean individuals must actively avoid all religion.
(c) Belief in God: Secularism is neutral regarding belief in God, allowing individuals to hold any beliefs or lack thereof.
(d) Practicing different religions: While secularism guarantees the freedom to practice different religions, it doesn’t specifically mean actively practicing multiple religions

Correct answer is C

The two highest gallantry awards in India are (a) Param Vir Chakra and Ashok Chakra:
Explanation: Param Vir Chakra is the highest gallantry award in wartime, while Ashok Chakra is the highest gallantry award in peacetime.
Why the other options are wrong:
(a) While the Param Vir Chakra is the highest gallantry award, Mahavir Chakra is the second highest wartime gallantry award.
(b) Param Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra: While the Param Vir Chakra is indeed the highest gallantry award, the Vir Chakra is the third-highest, not the second. The Maha Vir Chakra ranks between the two.
(c) Ashoka Chakra and Mahavir Chakra: The Ashoka Chakra is the highest peacetime gallantry award, while the Mahavir Chakra is the second highest wartime gallantry award.

The correct answer is (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Explanation: According to the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the Anti-Defection Law, disputes regarding the disqualification of a Member of Parliament (MP) are to be decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly in the case of state legislatures).
Why other options are wrong:
(a) Election Commissioner: While the Election Commission handles matters related to elections, including disputes regarding registration of political parties and symbols, they do not have jurisdiction over disqualification disputes under the Anti-Defection Law.
(c) President of India: The President of India has a largely ceremonial role in matters related to Parliament. Disqualification disputes are specifically assigned to the Speaker by the Constitution, not the President.
(d) A committee set up by the Parliament: While Parliament may have committees that deal with various issues, the Constitution explicitly states that the Speaker is the sole authority to decide on disqualification petitions under the Anti-Defection Law.

The correct option is (c) Increase in per capita income.
Explnation : Per capita income is calculated by dividing the total national income by the total population. A sudden decrease in the birth rate means fewer new individuals are added to the population annually. Assuming national income remains stable or grows, a smaller population denominator generally leads to an increase in per capita income. Households might also have more disposable income, potentially increasing savings or consumption.
Why other options are incorrect
(a) Increase in investment: A potential future population decrease might suggest a smaller workforce and reduced future demand, which could discourage some long-term investments.
(b) Increase of savings: Fewer dependents due to a lower birth rate can potentially increase household savings rates. However, the most immediate impact is on per capita income.
(d) Increase in production: While complex, a lower birth rate doesn’t guarantee an immediate increase in production; the most direct impact is on the per capita income calculation.

When analyzing the increase in a cooperative milk society’s sales from Rs. 41,000 to Rs. 59,000 to assess if it indicates an improvement in functioning, the most critical factor to consider is whether (b) Price stability is maintained.
Explanation:Price stability is crucial because sales figures alone don’t reflect true growth if prices have significantly increased. A higher sales value could be due to inflated prices rather than an increase in the quantity of milk sold or improved efficiency of the cooperative.
If the price of milk has been artificially inflated, the increased revenue might not translate into real benefits for the cooperative members (farmers) or indicate an improvement in the cooperative’s operational efficiency or the quantity of milk handled.
Therefore, to determine whether there’s been genuine improvement, one must investigate if the increase in sales is due to selling more milk or just higher prices. If prices have remained stable, then the sales increase likely reflects an increase in the volume of milk handled or a larger customer base, indicating better functioning.
Why other options are incorrect
(a) The quality of milk is maintained: While milk quality is important for a cooperative’s long-term success and reputation, it doesn’t directly explain an increase in revenue in the short term. A cooperative could see increased sales even with slightly compromised quality if, for example, prices are exceptionally high. To accurately assess improvement in functioning, one must disentangle the effects of price and quantity sold, of which quality is one aspect affecting quantity.
(c) Expenditure is increased: An increase in expenditure alone doesn’t necessarily indicate an improvement in functioning. It could be due to investments in new equipment, expansion of services, or higher operational costs aimed at improving efficiency or quality in the long run. To understand the impact of expenditure, one would need to analyze it in relation to the revenue generated and the cooperative’s overall profitability.
(d) Expenditure is decreased: A decrease in expenditure, similarly, doesn’t automatically signify improvement. It could be a result of cutting corners on quality or services, which might negatively affect the cooperative in the long run, even if it leads to short-term cost savings. A comprehensive analysis would be required to determine the reasons and consequences of reduced expenditure.

The Correct answer is (a) Hong Kong:
Explanation : Hong Kong is a Special Administrative Region (SAR) of China, operating under the principle of “One Country, Two Systems”. This means while it enjoys a high degree of autonomy in various areas like its currency, legal system, and immigration policies, it’s not absolutely independent as its sovereignty rests with China. Beijing retains significant control, especially in areas like vetting candidates for top government positions and national security matters.
Why other Options are Incorrect :
b) Singapore: Singapore is a fully independent island country and city-state in Southeast Asia. It gained its independence from the United Kingdom and Malaysia in 1965.
c) Switzerland: Switzerland is a fully independent federal republic located in Europe. It’s known for its long-standing policy of neutrality and its federal system of government with autonomous cantons.
d) Mozambique: Mozambique is an independent republic located in Southeast Africa. It gained independence from Portugal in 1975 after a long period of colonial rule.

The correct answer is (b) Increasing the taxes.
Explanation: When taxes are raised, people have less disposable income to spend, which can decrease demand and put downward pressure on prices, helping to control inflation.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) Increasing the prices: Increasing prices would actually exacerbate inflation by making goods and services more expensive, further fueling price increases.
(c) Restraint on the growth: While restraining economic growth can help control inflation in the long run, it might also lead to job losses and a slowdown in economic activity, which is not desirable for temporary inflation control.
(d) Reducing the prices: Reducing prices would stimulate demand and could lead to higher inflation.

Correct answer is C